If about 55% of flops are two-tone if no hole cards were seen, and with our example 3/4 of the flushes are covered, it should be less than 75% of 55% do you see why?
08-08-2010 09:26 PM
#11
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If about 55% of flops are two-tone if no hole cards were seen, and with our example 3/4 of the flushes are covered, it should be less than 75% of 55% do you see why? | |
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