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 Originally Posted by Tasha
Originally Posted by spoonitnow
Originally Posted by spoonitnow
If about 55% of flops are two-tone if no hole cards were seen, and with our example 3/4 of the flushes are covered, it should be less than 75% of 55% do you see why?
Help! No I don't, but that's what I was aiming for.
With 52 cards unknown, the chance of a two-tone flop is 55%. If we want to know the likelihood a specific suit will flop, it's 25%*55%. The chance that one of 3 specific suits will fall is 75%*55%.
But that's the probability with 52 cards unknown. We are stating that we know that each of the 3 players has 2 cards of their suit, so the chance of a two-tone flop falling for their suit is diminished, because two of their suited cards are taken out of the deck.
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