Most flops are.....

wich gives us like 39% and if thats right it means my 1st equation was correct for 2tone! which makes sense (i think). but 39+61 doesnt leave ~5% left for monotone so i effed something up :\
EDIT: so maybe my 1st equation isnt right for 2tone

card A : 52/52
card B: M: 12/51 R: 39/51
card C: M: 11/50 R: 26/50

crap, I'll be back when I'm done @ the tables.. got same

39% for rainbow as previous....
We need to weight card B because it affects our wanted outcomes for card C
ok so if card B is same suit as A which is P (12/51)

then card c must be any of the 39 offsuit cards left of 50

if card B is different suit from A which is P (39/51)
then card c must be any of the 25 (no... 26) cards which are offsuit from both previous.

(12/51)*39/50 = .1835
(39/51)*26/50 = .385

sum of 56.58% for 2 tone.
roughly 39.8% for rainbow
remaining 5.2ish for mono

= really close to 100%.. Windows calculator sucks.. also. I miscounted 1 card. aah, screw it, really close.. miss counting something, u get the idea though
yea ez way is 1-P(r)-P(m) where P(r) is probably of rainbow/mono..

Originally Posted by pdk1010

feel like the right answer is "it depends",

Yes, it depend on
a) which cards are missing from the deck (as in you have a 50 card deck cuz your dog ate 2 of the s .
b) if you have AA on jokerstars the flop will come monotone of a suit you don't have.

Originally Posted by dneureiter

if card B is different suit from A which is P (39/51)
then card c must be any of the 25 (no... 26) cards which are offsuit from both previous.

(12/51)*39/50 = .1835
(39/51)*26/50 = .385

NO, lol. one of the 24 cards which are the same suit as either of two previous. That's why I was adding to a little over 100%.