If about 55% of flops are two-tone if no hole cards were seen, and with our example 3/4 of the flushes are covered, it should be less than 75% of 55% do you see why?
08-08-2010 09:26 PM
#1
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If about 55% of flops are two-tone if no hole cards were seen, and with our example 3/4 of the flushes are covered, it should be less than 75% of 55% do you see why? | |
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08-09-2010 12:58 AM
#2
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08-09-2010 12:00 PM
#3
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Help! No I don't, but that's what I was aiming for. | |
08-09-2010 12:38 PM
#4
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With 52 cards unknown, the chance of a two-tone flop is 55%. If we want to know the likelihood a specific suit will flop, it's 25%*55%. The chance that one of 3 specific suits will fall is 75%*55%. | |
08-10-2010 07:31 AM
#5
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08-10-2010 12:54 PM
#6
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Read post 31 by pdk1010 in this thread. It shows the probabilities of the different kinds of boards you can flop with a suited hand (flopped flush, flopped draw, 1 of your suit, none of your suit). | |