Select Page
Poker Forum
Over 1,292,000 Posts!
Poker ForumFTR Community

Probability question (math nerds welcome)

Results 1 to 37 of 37

Hybrid View

Previous Post Previous Post   Next Post Next Post
  1. #1
    MadMojoMonkey's Avatar
    Join Date
    Apr 2012
    Posts
    10,456
    Location
    St Louis, MO
    None of this sits well with me. That tiny range after 100 trials is too low. This says that you expect to have exactly $0 after 100 trials about 19 times out of every 20 experiments. Gut check says no.

    ***
    Isn't StDev = sqrt(2) units per trial? So StDev after 100 trials is 141.4?

    141.4 /sqrt(100) = 14.14
    14.14*1.92 = 27.15

    Using 1.96 is for "infinite trials", and generally is a fine approx for more than 20 trials, but since 1.92 is technically correct here, I'm using it.

    (I start work in 15 minutes, so I can't really get into this right now. I'll think on it this afternoon.)
  2. #2
    Quote Originally Posted by MadMojoMonkey View Post
    None of this sits well with me. That tiny range after 100 trials is too low. This says that you expect to have exactly $0 after 100 trials about 19 times out of every 20 experiments. Gut check says no.
    Confidence interval is about the mean of the sample. So if you have +19 after 100 samples, the mean of 0.19 is still in the confidence interval.

    Isn't StDev = sqrt(2) units per trial? So StDev after 100 trials is 141.4?
    lol no
  3. #3
    MadMojoMonkey's Avatar
    Join Date
    Apr 2012
    Posts
    10,456
    Location
    St Louis, MO
    Gut check says no.

    We're talking about the expected outcome after 100 trials, not the expected outcome of each of the trials.
  4. #4
    Quote Originally Posted by MadMojoMonkey View Post
    Gut check says no.

    We're talking about the expected outcome after 100 trials, not the expected outcome of each of the trials.
    We actually seem to come to the same conclusion, with only the 1.92 and 1.96 difference.

    14.14*1.92 = 27.15
    So your interval [-27.15, +27.15]

    This is not the confidence interval though because is strictly about the mean. Probably this has a name in statistics though.

    But please look it up.
  5. #5
    MadMojoMonkey's Avatar
    Join Date
    Apr 2012
    Posts
    10,456
    Location
    St Louis, MO
    Quote Originally Posted by jackvance View Post
    Quote Originally Posted by MadMojoMonkey View Post
    Gut check says no.

    We're talking about the expected outcome after 100 trials, not the expected outcome of each of the trials.
    We actually seem to come to the same conclusion, with only the 1.92 and 1.96 difference.


    So your interval [-27.15, +27.15]

    This is not the confidence interval though because is strictly about the mean. Probably this has a name in statistics though.

    But please look it up.
    Sorry. The posts were coming fast and I was behind the thread, and I tried to delete this response before I started my shift, but I guess it missed.

    I agree with this range.

    EDIT: The CI should be symmetric about the mean. We're using a normal distribution, which is symmetrical about the mean, to model the outcome.
    Last edited by MadMojoMonkey; 01-01-2015 at 04:35 PM.
  6. #6
    Renton's Avatar
    Join Date
    Jan 2006
    Posts
    8,863
    Location
    a little town called none of your goddamn business
    Quote Originally Posted by MadMojoMonkey View Post
    Isn't StDev = sqrt(2) units per trial? So StDev after 100 trials is 141.4?

    Variance is additive, standard deviation is not. St.Dev for 100 trials is 14.14 units / 100 trials. I am fairly certain of that much.

Posting Permissions

  • You may not post new threads
  • You may not post replies
  • You may not post attachments
  • You may not edit your posts
  •