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How do I construct a 3-betting range?

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  1. #1
    DoubleJ's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Stacks View Post
    To figure out villain's fold to 3bet %, you need to consider villain's opening range compared to the range he continues to 3bets with, regardless of if it's by calling or 4betting.

    So if he is 4betting the top 3% of hands, then calling another 17% of hands that he opened with, he's continue to a 3bet with the top 20% of hands. His fold to 3bet is still dependent on what his opening range is to begin with, as if he is only opening 20% of hands (and thus continuing with all) he would have a FT3 of 0%. But if he's opening with say 50% of hands, and continuing with 20%, he's folding 30/50 or 60% of the time.
    Sorry if i'm being dense here, Stacks, but the maths here doesn't make sense to me.

    If we are talking about fold-to-3Bet frequency, then if Villain is continuing in 20% of spots that his raise is 3Bet, by definition, he's not continuing (i.e. folding) the other 80%.

    Regardless of his opening range.

    I agree that we need to take opening range into consideration when thinking about his 4Betting and Continuing ranges, and that the strength of Villain's opening range is going to have a direct correlation to his continuing frequency, but i don't get your calculation at all.

    Can you go over it again, plizz?
    Last edited by DoubleJ; 12-14-2012 at 11:01 AM.
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  2. #2
    MadMojoMonkey's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by DoubleJ View Post
    if Villain is continuing in 20% of spots that his raise is 3Bet, by definition, he's not continuing (i.e. folding) the other 80%.
    Stacks has it here.

    In the ranges I posted, Villain folds 60%, limps 20%, and raises 20%.

    Of the 20% Villain raises, 17% of it is b/c and 3% of it is b/r. 0% of the raising range is b/f.

    I am going to create new ranges right now.... post to come.
  3. #3
    Stacks's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by DoubleJ View Post
    Sorry if i'm being dense here, Stacks, but the maths here doesn't make sense to me.

    If we are talking about fold-to-3Bet frequency, then if Villain is continuing in 20% of spots that his raise is 3Bet, by definition, he's not continuing (i.e. folding) the other 80%.
    Well yeah, if he continues 20% of the time, then by default he is not continuing 80%. But that wasn't the question 3M posed. He gave him a continuing range of 20% (17% call, 3% 4bet). So to determine how often he folds to a 3bet, you must consider how often he is opening. And since 3M made a mistake and had him only raising 20% of hands, and thus continuing with all of them, he was folding 0% of the time.

    In your example of him folding 80% of the time, he would have to be opening 100% of hands.

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