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 Originally Posted by Stacks
To figure out villain's fold to 3bet %, you need to consider villain's opening range compared to the range he continues to 3bets with, regardless of if it's by calling or 4betting.
So if he is 4betting the top 3% of hands, then calling another 17% of hands that he opened with, he's continue to a 3bet with the top 20% of hands. His fold to 3bet is still dependent on what his opening range is to begin with, as if he is only opening 20% of hands (and thus continuing with all) he would have a FT3 of 0%. But if he's opening with say 50% of hands, and continuing with 20%, he's folding 30/50 or 60% of the time.
Sorry if i'm being dense here, Stacks, but the maths here doesn't make sense to me. 
If we are talking about fold-to-3Bet frequency, then if Villain is continuing in 20% of spots that his raise is 3Bet, by definition, he's not continuing (i.e. folding) the other 80%.
Regardless of his opening range.
I agree that we need to take opening range into consideration when thinking about his 4Betting and Continuing ranges, and that the strength of Villain's opening range is going to have a direct correlation to his continuing frequency, but i don't get your calculation at all.
Can you go over it again, plizz?
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