5nl 2pair bet call turn.

[seven-deuce]

Only sat at this table was villain 73/0 through 11hands.

When villain bets 2bb into 7bb i immediately think he's got 2 hearts any random combo really 35 56 89 T5 etc. or some Qx hands including QT. I raise the flop for pure value to charge the draws and get called by worse pairs. Pretty irrelevant turn unless he called my raise on the flop with 22 so i still think i'm best then he makes another tiny bet 3bb into 32bb still putting him on lots of draws hearts and Qx don't think he would lead the turn so small with a K after my flop raise but it is possible. So i raise for value again committing him to the pot i snap call when he shoves.


PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em, $0.05 BB (6 handed) - PokerStars Converter Tool from FlopTurnRiver.com

UTG ($5.56)
Hero (MP) ($5)
CO ($5.51)
Button ($5.12)
SB ($4.23)
BB ($6.52)

Preflop: Hero is MP with J, A
1 fold, Hero bets $0.15, 2 folds, SB calls $0.13, 1 fold

Flop: ($0.35) A, K, J (2 players)
SB bets $0.10, Hero raises to $0.64, SB calls $0.54

Turn: ($1.63) 2 (2 players)
SB bets $0.15, Hero raises to $2.01, SB raises to $3.44 (All-In), Hero calls $1.43

River: ($8.51) 9 (2 players, 1 all-in)

Total pot: $8.51 | Rake: $0.35

Afterward i stoved a value rang for villain vs my hand containing no bluffs. Do you think this range is accurate?

{ JJ,AQs-ATs,KJs+,QTs,AQo-ATo,KJo+,QTo }

I'm trying to learn this bet/(bet+pot) formula so can someone tell me if im using it correctly it'll be much appreciated.

Bet i have to call is 1.58 pot is 7.23

1.58/(1.58+7.23)=0.179 so if i have more than 18% equity vs villains range its +ev to call and i (AJo) had 59.2% equity vs this range so it was a +ev call.

Is this analysis correct?

[MadMojoMonkey]

I don't know what you meant, but in the following, when I say pot, I mean the amount that is on the table that is not involved in current bets. I.e. if the pot was $2 and Villain makes a $1 bet, then POT = $2 and BET = $1.

When you're bluffing, you need it to be successful at least BET/(BET + POT) of the time. This is because when you're bluffing, you want the pot right now, without Villain's call in the pot.

When you're calling, you need to be successful BET/(BET + BET + POT) of the time. This is because Villain's bet is already on the table.

[peel]

I have a post it on my screen with the %'s needed to call according to pot size.

Villain bets 2x Pot - we need to be good 40% of the time.
Pot - 33%
2/3 Pot - 28%
1/2 Pot - 25%
1/3 Pot - 20%
1/4 Pot - 16%

I got this from a book I read, have pretty much memorised it now but it might help, rather than working everything out you can just memorise it all.

[MadMojoMonkey]

2/3 Pot - 28%
1/2 Pot - 25%
1/3 Pot - 20%
1/4 Pot - 16%

You can memorize a list of things, or you can memorize 1 formula.
BET/(BET + BET + POT) reduces to the numbers in that fraction of the pot bet.
2/3 Pot - 2/(2 + 2 + 3) = 28%
1/2 Pot - 1/(1 + 1 + 2) = 25%
1/3 Pot - 1/(1 + 1 + 3) = 20%
1/4 Pot - 1/(1 + 1 + 4) = 16%

The 2x pot bet is easy once you realize that 2x is just 2/1 Pot
2/1 Pot - 2/(2 + 2 + 1) = 40%

[ColdDecked]

Open bigger pre. Post is probably fine vs this fish.

[seven-deuce]

I don't know what you meant, but in the following, when I say pot, I mean the amount that is on the table that is not involved in current bets. I.e. if the pot was $2 and Villain makes a $1 bet, then POT = $2 and BET = $1.

When you're bluffing, you need it to be successful at least BET/(BET + POT) of the time. This is because when you're bluffing, you want the pot right now, without Villain's call in the pot.

When you're calling, you need to be successful BET/(BET + BET + POT) of the time. This is because Villain's bet is already on the table.

Thanks a lot for this MojoMonkey. +rep for you

So in this instance:

the pot on the turn is 1.63 and i bet 2.01 and villain shoves 3.44

so the pot would be 7.08 and the bet i have to call is 1.43

therefore 1.43/(1.43+1.43+7.08)=0.14

wow this is shocking i only need more than 14% equity to make a +ev call here.

[peel]

Its not like I put actual effort into memorising it, was just on a post it, which I now rarely, if ever, look at.

Its an easy concept so using a formula or memory of a list is a pretty marginal decision, just giving the OP a different way to learn it

[The Bean Counter]

Personally wouldn't play this hand much differently against this player and would expect to see something bordering on retarded often enough.

[MadMojoMonkey]

Thanks a lot for this MojoMonkey. +rep for you

So in this instance:

the pot on the turn is 1.63 and i bet 2.01 and villain shoves 3.44

so the pot would be 7.08 and the bet i have to call is 1.43

the pot would be $1.63 + $2.01 + $2.01 = $5.65
and the bet you have to call is $1.43
$1.43/$5.65 ~= 1/4
You are calling, so you need to be right 1/(1 + 1 + 4) = 17%

*note, 17% is 1/6 and 14% is 1/7, so the difference is not too great.

[seven-deuce]

You're right, dunno how i'm getting mixed with the pot size etc. So if i have been the last bettor and a villain shoves he has to match my bet and the surplus cash is the bet i have to call, so in a scenario like this its the pot size before any betting has taken place plus my bet twice to get the pot size, then the bet i have to call is the bet i get it now.

[MadMojoMonkey]

If it helps, you can think of it as this:
amount you have to call / total amount that will be won (by someone) when you call

[Stacks]

(Hero calls $1.43) / (Total pot: $8.51 )

.

[daven]

when this guy is in the blinds you should open value hands bigger. Raise flop is standard, probably just shove the turn, as played obviously don't fold vs the turn shove cos 16% or whatever it is.

[seven-deuce]

So much simpler thanks

[MadMojoMonkey]

(Hero calls $1.43) / (Total pot: $8.51 )

Equals 16.8%, which I'd call 17%.

My estimate of the bet being ~1/4 pot yields 16.7%, which I called 17%.