Only sat at this table was villain 73/0 through 11hands.

When villain bets 2bb into 7bb i immediately think he's got 2 hearts any random combo really 35 56 89 T5 etc. or some Qx hands including QT. I raise the flop for pure value to charge the draws and get called by worse pairs. Pretty irrelevant turn unless he called my raise on the flop with 22 so i still think i'm best then he makes another tiny bet 3bb into 32bb still putting him on lots of draws hearts and Qx don't think he would lead the turn so small with a K after my flop raise but it is possible. So i raise for value again committing him to the pot i snap call when he shoves.


PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em, $0.05 BB (6 handed) - PokerStars Converter Tool from FlopTurnRiver.com

UTG ($5.56)
Hero (MP) ($5)
CO ($5.51)
Button ($5.12)
SB ($4.23)
BB ($6.52)

Preflop: Hero is MP with J, A
1 fold, Hero bets $0.15, 2 folds, SB calls $0.13, 1 fold

Flop: ($0.35) A, K, J (2 players)
SB bets $0.10, Hero raises to $0.64, SB calls $0.54

Turn: ($1.63) 2 (2 players)
SB bets $0.15, Hero raises to $2.01, SB raises to $3.44 (All-In), Hero calls $1.43

River: ($8.51) 9 (2 players, 1 all-in)

Total pot: $8.51 | Rake: $0.35

Afterward i stoved a value rang for villain vs my hand containing no bluffs. Do you think this range is accurate?

{ JJ,AQs-ATs,KJs+,QTs,AQo-ATo,KJo+,QTo }

I'm trying to learn this bet/(bet+pot) formula so can someone tell me if im using it correctly it'll be much appreciated.

Bet i have to call is 1.58 pot is 7.23

1.58/(1.58+7.23)=0.179 so if i have more than 18% equity vs villains range its +ev to call and i (AJo) had 59.2% equity vs this range so it was a +ev call.

Is this analysis correct?