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  1. #1
    Say we have 2 player stats and 2 player styles. It's a matching game.

    Player 1 stats: 40/10
    Player 2 stats: 15/12

    Match theses styles:
    A. Loose/Passive
    B. Tight/Aggressive


    As a ratio, the player 1 stats show he raises a small percent of his hands. That means he calls a large percent. Calling is a passive play. Thus, player 1 is more passive than player 2.

    Please correct me if this is wrong. The only argument I see here is whether or not you want to make the leap that his preflop play translates directly to his postflop play.
    Explain...what I do for a living without saying "I make monies in da 600 enels by pwnin' tha donk bitches". Instead I say "I'm a online financial redistribution broker". - Sasquach991
  2. #2
    JKDS's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by PlayToWin View Post
    The only argument I see here is whether or not you want to make the leap that his preflop play translates directly to his postflop play.
    Thats exactly the arguement im making.

    An added bonus, is that since he's 3bet 3 times already over 40 hands so he could be a passive player post flop that has been running hot...but its also likely that hes a fairly aggressive player thats running cold.

    So we can't really say anything about how passive he is at all based souly on his pfr and vpip. I mean, he could also be a fit/folder, a fit/folder that shoves draws, a fit folder that is passive with draws etc etc etc.

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