Cbetting the flop, Fold equity and hand equity etc

[Timlagor]

35% is fold equity 65% is call equity
37% is Hero's hand equity to win against Villain's calling range 63% is Hero's hand equity to lose against Villain's calling range

As I understand it the 37% is the chance that you get called and win anyway. (also the chance of getting called and losing)
I fail to see why this being is multiplied by the chance of getting called* again.

* which is already factored in afaics


If you said that you assume V checks 100% then I missed it.

[MadMojoMonkey]

As I understand it the 37% is the chance that you get called and win anyway. (also the chance of getting called and losing)

No.

37% is the equity Hero's actual specific hand has to win against Villain's range.
How Villain got that range (betting, calling, whatever) is irrelevant.

I didn't actually check to see if the 37% was accurate in the example in this thread.

I fail to see why this being is multiplied by the chance of getting called* again.

* which is already factored in afaics

EV = (%chance of call)*(value of call) + (%chance of fold)*(value of fold)
(All options need to be accounted for.)

NOW:
value of call is this
(value of call) = (%chance to win)*(value of win) + (%chance to lose)*(value of loss)

SO, plug that into EV
EV = (%chance of call)*((%chance to win)*(value of win) + (%chance to lose)*(value of loss)) + (%chance of fold)*(value of fold)

So the distributive property applies to the big parentheses, and we have

EV =
(%chance of call)*(%chance to win)*(value of win)
+ (%chance of call)*(%chance to lose)*(value of loss)
+ (%chance of fold)*(value of fold)

Do you see it now?

[DJAbacus]

No.

I didn't actually check to see if the 37% was accurate in the example in this thread.

Based on this info:

Villain is a Fish who calls PF with 100% of his range and calls a 50% cbet OTF with any slightly made hand which includes stuff like A high and Overs.

I hold AcKh

Flop: Qd6s5d