02-23-2013 10:13 AM
#1
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02-23-2013 10:56 AM
#2
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02-23-2013 12:19 PM
#3
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Of the range you give villain when he raises the flop (I'm not sure J7-J8o would be in his range preflop, but otherwise, it sounds pretty reasonable to me), what do you think he would fold to a 3bet? Stuff like 99-TT, QJ, non-spade 65? So against his continuing range you'd be at something like this? |
02-23-2013 12:23 PM
#4
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02-23-2013 12:57 PM
#5
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Sorry, semi-bluff was the wrong word in my last post (for some reason I thought hero had two overcards, not top pair) since hero is probably not getting better to fold (would villain fold KJ?). But if we put 99-TT back in villain's range (which isn't too unreasonable since it would be pair+gutshot), hero has 51.7% equity to villain's continuing range. |
02-23-2013 11:39 PM
#6
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02-24-2013 05:53 AM
#7
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02-24-2013 07:28 AM
#8
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02-24-2013 07:47 AM
#9
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Last edited by Savy; 02-24-2013 at 07:54 AM. | |
02-24-2013 10:09 AM
#10
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02-24-2013 10:12 AM
#11
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02-24-2013 10:16 AM
#12
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? Why would I be sore after the sc's s1g's argument when you couldn't even make 1 valid point throughout the entire thread. My answer basically said no. That is as helpful as you deserved since you didn't stove anything yourself. You can't expect people to hold your hand and do every pokerstove calc for you. I know your math is a little weaker which is fine and most people will be willing to help you with those calc's but there is no reason for you to not at least post your own pokerstove ranges. |