Quote Originally Posted by Icanhastreebet View Post
It doesn't mean he's MUCH more likely to be anything. 40.6% chance he's a winner.

95% confidence interval over 10k hands spans about 28bb


edit: Using 90bb/100 standard deviation
The sample mean is positive. How can the % chance the true mean is positive be less than 50%?

x = (4.8 +/- 28) bb/100 :: (-23.2 < x < 32.8) bb/100

This contains more positive values than negative values, so what am I missing?