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PF 3bet OOP and hitting resistance @ 5NL

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  1. #1
    Quote Originally Posted by Openside View Post
    This is an obvious hole in my understanding. Its 3way if i flat anyway. AK blows multiway. I want to get this to HU pre, no? HU on the flop i have alot more fold equity.
    Why do i want to commit myself to calling a shove? My thinking was that anything i beat is folding to my flop bet.
    I think the gap in your logic is that you're not understanding why you're betting. Preflop -- is your raise as a bluff or for value? You're not going to fold any hands that crush you (AA/KK) but you are folding most of the hands that you will crush if you hit an A or K (AQo, JJ and lower).

    Same goes for the flop -- look at your bolded sentence. You bet into a pot expecting all worse hands to fold and all better hands to call. You aren't betting for value, because no worse hands call. It's not a good bluff, because (a) no better hands fold and (b) not enough of his range folds to make the bet profitable in a vacuum. So where does that leave you? You're just giving away money.
  2. #2
    Quote Originally Posted by NightGizmo View Post
    I think the gap in your logic is that you're not understanding why you're betting. Preflop -- is your raise as a bluff or for value? You're not going to fold any hands that crush you (AA/KK) but you are folding most of the hands that you will crush if you hit an A or K (AQo, JJ and lower).Same goes for the flop -- look at your bolded sentence. You bet into a pot expecting all worse hands to fold and all better hands to call. You aren't betting for value, because no worse hands call. It's not a good bluff, because (a) no better hands fold and (b) not enough of his range folds to make the bet profitable in a vacuum. So where does that leave you? You're just giving away money.
    Im 3betting to get HU and for info. Point taken, by 3betting for info im folding everything i beat.
    Any thoughts on why villain took the line he did?

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