At the Turn does villain have implied odds to call? If so, does that mean the Turn bet should have been bigger?
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06-24-2010 08:13 AM
#1
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At the Turn does villain have implied odds to call? If so, does that mean the Turn bet should have been bigger? | |
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06-24-2010 01:53 PM
#2
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Villain has no implied odds because our hand is really weak and we aren't retarded spew monkeys.. |
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06-27-2010 06:25 PM
#3
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06-27-2010 08:36 PM
#4
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because villain is 71/14 over 50 hands with afq of 48% with the IQ of a 7th grader |
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06-27-2010 10:37 PM
#5
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think about the term implied odds....the thing that is "implied" is that this person is going to get more money off of me on a later street, so you are temporarily taking bad immediate odds with it being implied that you are going to make up for that on a later street of betting when you do hit your hand (and you wont be putting any more money in the pot when you dont). In this case i only have tp with a king kicker on a really scary board, i am folding to aggression from most people here. So as a result i am not giving anyone implied great implied odds because i am not going to pay off hands that do hit (str8s/flushes) | |
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06-28-2010 08:53 AM
#6
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Thanks, it did, right up to the last bit. | |
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06-28-2010 02:58 PM
#7
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so you are saying his implied odds are 29% and he only has 20% chance of hitting (which he doesnt even have its more like 16% cause he has 8 outs..and only some of those are clean outs, 2 of the 8 put a flush on the board (like the one that came on the river)) so even in your example he is not getting the right implied odds to call, it would still be a -EV play | |