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Would villain flat your 3bet preflop with A2-A8? Otherwise, there aren’t really any worse Aces that he would easily fold, right? Or do you think he’d fold A9 or AT?
I’m probably way off, but can we put villain on range like this on the flop?
QQ-66, AQs-AJs, KJs+, QJs, JTs, AQo-AJo, KQo
That’s 67 hand combos, taking blockers into account.
He might call a 2/3-pot cbet with something like the following:
QQ-99, AQs-AJs, KJs+, QJs, JTs, AQo-AJo, KQo
That’s 49 hand combos, taking blockers into account. So he folds 26.9% of the time. As a pure bluff you would need him to fold more than 40% of the time (60/60+90). Do you have enough equity to make this profitable? Against this continuing range, you only have 26.3% equity.
If your 2/3-pot cbet was an all-in, then it would come out to be +EV (26.9% of the time you win $0.90. Of the remaining 73.1% of the time when villain calls, you win $1.50 26.3% of the time and lose $0.60 73.7% of the time. If I did the math correctly, that should be +$0.20.). But if you figure that later streets of betting will be a pain with this hand, then check/fold on the flop makes sense to me.
But then the villain checks through the flop, turn, and river. Wouldn’t checking through the flop weigh his range toward underpairs or bottom/mid pairs which might fold out to a bet? Couldn’t you think about cbetting the turn? Or does checking the flop after 3betting preflop convince the villain that you don’t have a Q (or even a J) or better, so he would call with most any pair?
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