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I like the case for setting 4 to a flush here.
Since our opponent is showing A, we have 8 more diamond outs to complete. We're getting 3 more draws (9 more cards) so our chances of completing the 4 flush are:
= 1 - (31*30*29*28*27*26*25*24*23)/(39*38*37*36*35*34*33*32*31)
= 1 - 7,315,688,016,000/76,899,763,100,160
~ 1 - 7.3/76.9
~ 1 - .0949
~ 90.5% (hopefully MMM can verify this)
Discarding one of our mid outs was a problem but the flush in back creates opportunites. For example, we can now get trips in the middle which would be a foul if we only had 2 pairs in back.
Originally Posted by baudib
As my opponent already has a huge lead in race for FL, what do I do here? I could go for 4 diamonds on the bottom, or I could go for a pair of 10s on bottom and 5s in the middle. I think this frees me up to just go for FL, whereas if I go for 4 diamonds, I'm pretty much stuck putting a K,Q,2 diamonds on the bottom. Thoughts?
If we get the flush then chances are we'll get one of the other 5 flush cards before or on the same draw as one of the 3 flush cards you mentioned above (K,Q,2 diamonds).
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