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Ok, maybe I should elaborate a little on why a 3bet can be a stack-off question.
Assume stacks of 100bb. Raise to 3.5bb, 3bet to 10.5bb (in position), 4bet to 30bb, 5bet shove.
Assume 3betting range of AA-QQ, AK and a good few bluffs. Let's take the same number of hand combinations as bluffs as we have in the value part of the range. Let's call it 97s-64s, 87s-54s.
Since the 3betting range has some bluffs in it, sometimes the opponent will 4bet as a bluff. Let's use a completely wacky 10s4c as our 4bet bluff example. What then happens if the 3bettor 5bet shoves his entire range?
Code:
equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 62.514% 61.70% 00.81% 67615576 891458.00 { QQ+, AKs, 97s, 86s+, 75s+, 64s+, 54s, AKo }
Hand 1: 37.486% 36.67% 00.81% 40188964 891458.00 { Ts4c }
Since the 4bettor in the bet size example I outline needs 70/200 = 35% equity to call the shove he is correct to call a shove with a hand as poor as Ts4c once he has 4bet bluffed with it.
This suggests that the 3bettor has fold equity, but if he is 4bet then there is no real fold equity in 5bet shoving. Thus, if he is 4bet and he chooses to continue showdown equity becomes very important. (and he wouldn't continue with the bluff part of his 3bet range as he did in the above example - suspend disbelief for a second).
Incidentally, if someone does want to 4bet bluff I have found one rule of thumb that says that the 4bet cannot be bigger than 1/4 of the starting stack or the above effect occurs where even if you 4bet bluff with crap you HAVE to call any 5bet. In the above example that would mean a 4bet to 25bb instead of the 30bb I used for this explanation. People who like being able to 4bet bluff will typically adopt a smaller 4bet size both for their value and bluff 4bets.
Another way of saying it is that preflop no hand is so big a dog that it's drawing dead. Against a range of hands that has a non-zero amount of bluffs very few hands end up with less than 30% equity.
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3-betting with JJ (10NL)
, J
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Originally Posted by Erpel
