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I could most definitely be off here, as I'm in class and really tired. But:
Hand 0: 39.184% { AcAh }
Hand 1: 60.816% { QcQd, QdQh, QhQs, JJ, 99-88, 55, AdKd, AdQd, AdJd, AdTd, KdQd, KdJd, KdTd, JTs, 98s, 76s, JTo, 98o, 76o }
If villain is making this play with sets, two pair, straights, strong flush draws, and weak overpairs, which is a decent assumption I believe. Given his raise size that is obviously committing him, you have 0% FE. To make a call on the raise you need 33% equity. So while a call is supposedly +EV, you obviously don't want to call, as you can't fold on the turn with so little behind. I'd go ahead and put it in.
However, if villain is passive and not b/3betting flush draws or weaker overpairs, then you should probably find a fold.
But to be totally honest with you, I'm rarely 100% certain in these situations. Also, why are we raising the flop bet, if we are intending to fold to a ship? I obviously wouldn't expect villain to bet/call this flop all that often. This flop is indicative of a c/r/call or b/3bet flop when possible. If I felt I was behind villains donking range, then I would make a call, dodge some turns and evaluate. If I felt I was ahead of the range he stacks off with, then I raise and get it in. It seems like with your raise your only intention was to "price out draws" or "protect your hand". Your ahead of his draws and bluffs, and even some weaker hands he donks. You obviously do not want him folding his draws/bluffs/weaker hands.
Idk.. I will return later to discuss some more. Interesting spot that I need to study better.
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