2 or 3 betting

[bigstock2001]

I am familiar with the term and have seen this term thrown all over the forem this week. So my question is this.

2 or 3 betting is when a raise comes in thats 2 bet correct and a reraise is 3 bet. even in Nl holdem not just limit holdem

If i am correct so far what is an example of when a correct 2 or 3 bet should be used. I know i not ready to use this method but i would like to be able to understand this fundemental.

Thanks
Don

[spoonitnow]

3-bet means the third bet, or second raise. If there is a bet on the flop, then a raise, then the next raise is a 3-bet. Preflop the posting of the big blind counts as the first bet, so if there is a raise, the next raise is a 3-bet, the next raise is a 4-bet, and so on.

Also, we usually just refer to the second bet as a raise instead of a 2-bet.

Good luck.

[bigstock2001]

Thanks spoon for the insight i was pretty close than on the term, however can you give me an example on how to use a 3 bet correctly. I have been in hands where this happens however I would like to know the correct way to use this. What type of hands should you see a third bet be used with.
Thanks
Don

3-bet any hand in the top half of your opponent's opening range.

[spoonitnow]

I just played this hand and thought it would be helpful since there is a 3-bet preflop and on the flop.

PokerStars No-Limit Hold'em, $0.50 BB (7 handed) - Poker-Stars Converter Tool from FlopTurnRiver.com

BB ($56.15)
UTG ($49.25)
spoonitnow (MP1) ($49.60)
MP2 ($25.50)
CO ($53.70)
Button ($50.90)
SB ($57.65)

Preflop: spoonitnow is MP1 with 7, 7
1 fold, spoonitnow raises to $2, 1 fold, CO raises to $5, 3 folds, spoonitnow calls $3

Flop: ($10.75) 4, 6, 7 (2 players)
spoonitnow checks, CO bets $6.60, spoonitnow raises to $18, CO raises to $48.70 (All-In), spoonitnow calls $26.60 (All-In)

Turn: ($99.95) K (2 players, 2 all-in)

River: ($99.95) 6 (2 players, 2 all-in)

Total pot: $99.95 | Rake: $3

Results in white below:
spoonitnow had 7, 7 (full house, sevens over sixes).
CO mucked Q, J (flush, King high).
Outcome: spoonitnow won $96.95

Pre-flop, CO's raise to $5 was a 3-bet. The first bet was the big blind posting his blind, the second bet was my raise to $2, and the third bet was CO's raise to $5.

On the flop, CO's raise all-in was a 3-bet. The first bet was his bet of $6.60, the second bet was my raise to $18, and the third bet was his shove all-in.

If you need any further clarification, don't be afraid to ask.

[spoonitnow]

3-bet any hand in the top half of your opponent's opening range.

This usually isn't best. Refer to the discussion of 3-betting in terms of Renton's ABCD subrange concept in the FR forum for more information.

Edit: I decided to come back and give an example to get things started in the right direction a bit more smoothly for you.

1. A 3-bet bluff is not profitable against all Villains in all situations. In these spots, we should be 3-betting for value most, if not all, of the time.

2. Suppose a Villain opens with 99+ and continues against a 3-bet with QQ+, then a 3-bet bluff is not profitable (a quick calculation can confirm), and a 3-bet for value with QQ isn't profitable even though it's in the top half of Villain's open-raising range.

3. In situations where a 3-bet bluff is profitable but you decide to only do so with X% of hands, you should tend to form that X% from hands that aren't strong enough to flat call, but have some sort of post-flop playability for the times that you do see a flop. For example, 74s will perform better than 72o as a 3-bet bluff because it holds more equity in the times you are forced to see a flop.

4. The proportion of times you 3-bet for value to the times you 3-bet as a bluff will give an indication as to if you are vulnerable to 4-bet bluffs.

I hope this makes for a more complete response.