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Let's say he min-reraises here against your apparent steal with his entire raising range. 11% of hands is 77+,A9s+,KTs+,QTs+,ATo+,KQo
Stove says you have 58.4% equity against this range. So you are ahead. Now, as Spoon said last time, that is not enough reason to 4-bet. So let me try:
You 4-bet because you think he might fold better hands (for example 77 or 88) or call with worse hands (for example AQ).
However, the first thing is that the situation here is complicated by the presence of MP2, who called villain's min-reraise. We should include him in the analysis.
The second thing is that we should also compare the EV of just calling in position with the EV of 4-betting before deciding that 4-betting is better. I am not advanced enough in my readings to figure how to do that. If one of the board's poker illuminatis would put us on track here, it'd be much appreciated. If not, well, I'll just keep reading my books until I find a chapter that talks about that. Basically, it comes down to the fact that facing a 4-bet, he will fold some of his worse hands that you could possibly have extracted more money from on subsequent streets. This is complicated by the fact that these worse hands also still have some equity against you. On the other hand, he will also continue with some of his better hands and then by 4-betting you just put money in as an underdog against this part of his range. I think the calculations can quickly become complicated, so I am not quite sure how to decide whether 4-betting is better than calling. Probably with experience...
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