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 Originally Posted by Arjonius
Why fool around and not put the opponent all in? If you bet $2 or whatever, he'll push or fold. If he pushes, you can't possibly fold, so what's the point of not putting him all in in the first place? And if he's going to fold, whether you bet $2 or put him all in doesn't matter.
there are two answers to this: one is simply psychology, and even if villain had only 2.20 left in his stack, a bet of 1.90 a lot of times gets more calls because online players are like omg all in is scary.
the second, and much more important answer, is range manipulation. http://poker-strategy.flopturnriver....y-Articles.php
basically, if you bet 1.90, then a poker player who's only half brain-dead will be like, oh it's only 1/2 PSB, i can call with my split pair, and someone who's completely brain dead can be like "that's not even two bucks, i'll call that nickles and dimes bet with my split pair." if you shove, then they tend to be more likely to only continue with their perceived A range rather than both their A and B range. they're also more likely to feel priced into their draw (even though they're not), or feel that because more money's left behind, they still have more money to make with a draw (which they don't if you go all in).
but that's still kinda the psychology answer. maybe more importantly, is that we still give him the opportunity to make a retarded bluff. i know, there's only .80 left to bet, but you still people shove over with garbage here, figuring that your smallish bet is weakness and they can get you off your hand. so, basically, betting 1/2 pot makes it SOO much more likely to get value from his A, B, C and D ranges, whereas shoving is mainly gonna get value from his A range and sometimes from his B range.
so we keep his range as wide as possible, without giving him the correct odds to continue with draws.
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Correct play on flop?
, A
, K
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