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Strange 3bet hand inside from 10nl
Before we get started, this hand is definitely not optimal by any means, standard, or really even smart. The best play at the time would probably have been to fold preflop.
Villain was a 23/17 over 85 hands with a 7% 3bet who loved to abuse the button whenever he could. He was also a "Goldstar" who seemed to be somewhat on tilt and had been calling some other people names.
No-Limit Hold'em, $0.10 BB (5 handed) - Hold'em Manager Converter Tool from FlopTurnRiver.com
Hero (SB) ($10.90)
BB ($13.80)
UTG ($3.60)
MP ($15.55)
Button ($10.50)
Preflop: Hero is SB with J , 9
2 folds, Button bets $0.40, Hero raises $1.40, 1 fold, Button calls $1
Flop: ($2.90) 9 , 10 , 4 (2 players)
Hero bets $2, Button calls $2
Turn: ($6.90) Q (2 players)
Hero bets $3, Button raises $7.10 (All-In), Hero calls $4.10
River: ($21.10) 7 (2 players, 1 all-in)
Total pot: $21.10
My plan pf was to 3bet him light and simply take down the 5.5 bbs. When the villain calls my 3bet, things changed. I flop middle pair, and fire out a bet, intending to fold to a raise or just take down a nice sized pot.
When he flat calls, it puts me in an awkward spot but the Q is actually a pretty decent card. At this point I think he could be slowplaying a set of T's or 4's, be holding an overpair, be on a straight draw with either with 78 or QJ, or just have a toppair type hand. Its also possible that he is holding AK, AQ and was peeling the flop to see if I give up on the turn. The most unlikely would be a back door flush draw with something like Ac9c or Ac4c.
IMO, if I were to play this hand again, I would either bet a little smaller or a little bigger on the turn. A $4 bet would look more like a value bet, and a $2 bet would look more like a blocking bet of sorts. The larger turn bet makes calling a shove really easy, getting 4:1 on my open-ender while the smaller bet would either get the villain to fold to a smaller amount when he has air, or save me some money when he shoves and I'll be less priced in to call (after I curse myself for putting half a stack into a marginal hand)
If the villain is on a wide range on the flop:
99+,44,AQs+,AcJc,ATs,Ac9c,Ac4c,QJs,87s,AQo+,ATo-A9o,QJo,87o
Board: 9d Tc 4h
Dead:
equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 51.072% 50.83% 00.24% 54852 260.00 { Jh9h }
Hand 1: 48.928% 48.69% 00.24% 52538 260.00 { 99+, 44, AQs+, AcJc, ATs, Ac9c, Ac4c, QJs, 87s, AQo+, ATo-A9o, QJo, 87o }
On the turn:
Board: 9d Tc 4h Qc
Dead:
equity win tie pots won pots tied
Hand 0: 43.767% 42.63% 01.14% 1857 49.50 { Jh9h }
Hand 1: 56.233% 55.10% 01.14% 2400 49.50 { 99+, 44, AQs+, AcJc, ATs, Ac9c, Ac4c, QJs, 87s, AQo+, ATo-A9o, QJo, 87o }
I'm curious to see what everyone's thought are. Had the flop been different, I would probably have just c/f but the way that the cards came down, I adjusted my plan.
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