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Implied odds on OESD

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  1. #1

    Default Implied odds on OESD

    Alright… so I just tried to calculate how big of a raise you should call when you have an OESD. This is meant for situations where you are pretty sure you will be able to win a good amount if you hit.
    i.e.: you think your opponent has a set or 2pairs, which most people at low stakes won’t usually fold.


    the odds of hitting the straight on the turn..

    8/47
    .170
    1 in 5.88

    Chance of hitting on the river if you didn’t hit on the turn

    39/47 * 8/46
    .144
    1 in 6.94

    Odds of hitting your straight

    1 - ( 39/47 * 38/46 )
    1 - ( 0.8298 * 0.8261)
    1 – 0.6855
    0.3145


    So over 100 of those situations, lets assume you’ll hit the straight 17times on the turn and 14times on the river.

    So you’ll call looking for the straight 100 times on the flop, and 83 times on the turn. (17 times you’ll already have the straight on the turn)

    You’ll win 31 hands.

    Now let’s calculate the maximum amount to call.

    x = amount you can win… pot + your opponents stack (or yours if its smaller)
    y = total of calls

    31x = 183y
    0.169x = y

    Or

    y = 5.91x


    Would it be correct to make a rule such as “call a raise only if the amount you can win is 7x bigger. “ ? (7 for profit and chance of your opponent folding)
  2. #2
    swiggidy's Avatar
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    Default Re: Implied odds on OESD

    Quote Originally Posted by JCMoney
    Odds of hitting your straight

    1 - ( 39/47 * 38/46 )
    1 - ( 0.8298 * 0.8261)
    1 – 0.6855
    0.3145
    I don't have this number memorized, but your math looks right

    Quote Originally Posted by JCMoney
    So over 100 of those situations, lets assume you’ll hit the straight 17times on the turn and 14times on the river.

    So you’ll call looking for the straight 100 times on the flop, and 83 times on the turn. (17 times you’ll already have the straight on the turn)

    You’ll win 31 hands.
    You are not allowing for having to call extra money on the turn.

    Quote Originally Posted by JCMoney
    Now let’s calculate the maximum amount to call.

    x = amount you can win… pot + your opponents stack (or yours if its smaller)
    y = total of calls

    31x = 183y
    0.169x = y

    Or

    y = 5.91x

    Would it be correct to make a rule such as “call a raise only if the amount you can win is 7x bigger. “ ? (7 for profit and chance of your opponent folding)
    Where did 183 come from?

    On the flop, you need ~6:1 to call for the turn. If you are looking for implied odds, it doesn't really matter how big opponents stack is, as long as it's big enough that pot + stack = 6 * bet. That is, unless he's a super shorty this shouldn't be an issue.

    The odds of hitting on the turn or river is 1:2. I don't see a correlation between your 7x rule and the 10x rule for sets (which I'm assuming this idea originated from).

    It's simple enough, call your open-ended straight draw with pot odds, if you are a little behind it's probably still OK to call because of implied odds.
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  3. #3
    Miffed22001's Avatar
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    id call a lot more if i know my opponent will pay it
  4. #4

    Default Re: Implied odds on OESD

    Quote Originally Posted by swiggidy
    On the flop, you need ~6:1 to call for the turn.
    If you're referring to odds as in "returns for one's bet", shouldn't that be
    5-to-1 and not 6-to-1? If the probability of hitting something is 1 out of 6,
    i.e. if one will hit it once in every six tries, then on that hit, one needs only
    win 5x to make up for the other five times one does not hit.
  5. #5
    swiggidy's Avatar
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    Default Re: Implied odds on OESD

    Quote Originally Posted by aqn
    Quote Originally Posted by swiggidy
    On the flop, you need ~6:1 to call for the turn.
    If you're referring to odds as in "returns for one's bet", shouldn't that be
    5-to-1 and not 6-to-1? If the probability of hitting something is 1 out of 6,
    i.e. if one will hit it once in every six tries, then on that hit, one needs only
    win 5x to make up for the other five times one does not hit.
    If the probability of hitting something is 1/6, then the odds of hitting are 1:5, so the payout can be 5:1.

    If the odds of hitting are 1:6, then the payout has to be 6:1
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  6. #6

    Default Re: Implied odds on OESD

    Quote Originally Posted by swiggidy
    Quote Originally Posted by aqn
    Quote Originally Posted by swiggidy
    On the flop, you need ~6:1 to call for the turn.
    If you're referring to odds as in "returns for one's bet", shouldn't that be
    5-to-1 and not 6-to-1? If the probability of hitting something is 1 out of 6,
    i.e. if one will hit it once in every six tries, then on that hit, one needs only
    win 5x to make up for the other five times one does not hit.
    If the probability of hitting something is 1/6, then the odds of hitting are 1:5, so the payout can be 5:1.

    If the odds of hitting are 1:6, then the payout has to be 6:1
    Precisely: the odds of hitting an OESD on the turn is 8 / 47 or 17.02%
    or about 1 out of every 5.87 times, as JCMoney already pointed out.
    That's hitting once out of every six times and the "payout" when
    hit needs to be five to one, not 6:1. Yes? No? Maybe?
    Just wanna make sure I'm not missing something...
  7. #7
    swiggidy's Avatar
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    Default Re: Implied odds on OESD

    Quote Originally Posted by aqn
    Precisely: the odds of hitting an OESD on the turn is 8 / 47 or 17.02%
    or about 1 out of every 5.87 times, as JCMoney already pointed out.
    That's hitting once out of every six times and the "payout" when
    hit needs to be five to one, not 6:1. Yes? No? Maybe?
    Just wanna make sure I'm not missing something...
    This is correct.

    This post is really confusing, I don't think there is anything to take from it (hence the lack of replies).

    I ignored the 1 in 5.88 at the beginning. Clearly (now) that is 1/5.88 not 1:5.88.

    I was using "y = 5.91 x". I don't even know what it means, but if x = 1, then y = 6, thus 6:1.
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  8. #8
    ensign_lee's Avatar
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    Default Re: Implied odds on OESD

    Quote Originally Posted by JCMoney
    the odds of hitting the straight on the turn..

    8/47
    .170
    1 in 5.88

    Chance of hitting on the river if you didn’t hit on the turn

    39/47 * 8/46
    .144
    1 in 6.94

    Odds of hitting your straight

    1 - ( 39/47 * 38/46 )
    1 - ( 0.8298 * 0.8261)
    1 – 0.6855
    0.3145
    Hos is this possible? If you don't hit on the turn, your chances of hitting your desired card on the river should be HIGHER, right? Because there is one less card that can't help you still in the deck.
  9. #9
    Miffed22001's Avatar
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  10. #10

    Default Re: Implied odds on OESD

    Quote Originally Posted by ensign_lee
    the odds of hitting the straight on the turn..

    8/47
    .170
    1 in 5.88

    Chance of hitting on the river if you didn.t hit on the turn

    39/47 * 8/46
    .144
    1 in 6.94

    Odds of hitting your straight

    1 - ( 39/47 * 38/46 )
    1 - ( 0.8298 * 0.8261)
    1 . 0.6855
    0.3145
    then
    Quote Originally Posted by JCMoney
    Hos is this possible? If you don't hit on the turn, your chances of hitting your desired card on the river should be HIGHER, right? Because there is one less card that can't help you still in the deck.
    You're both correct.

    1/6.94 is the probability of both events happening:
    not hitting on the turn and hitting on the river.

    If for some reasons you don't care about the turn, and regard hitting the
    OESD on the river as an independent event, then yes, the probability of
    hitting is 8/46, which is higher than that on the the turn (8/47).

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