This is something I have been arguing with my friends quite a bit.

Here is the scenario:You are holding KK. Is it more likely that one of your opponents has a pocket A(and has you beaten) when there is a)1 b)2 c)3 aces on the board. (and you do not hit the set)

I would calculate the scenario like this: lets say there is 6 players alltogether. After the flop there is one A showing, you can calculate that the probability that one of your 5 opponents (5 opponents having alltogether 10 cards, hence 10) has A is 3/47/10, if the turn is A as well the probability will be down to 2/46/10 and when the river is A as well the probability will be 1/45/10.

IMO the common sense tells you the same, you are more likely to win with you KK if there is AAA showing compared to just 1 A.

Am I wrong and if so, how do you calculate this?