I realize already that both this was probably pretty poorly played but I just wanted to check to see if my rational was at all okay.

villain is a 33/13 or so over 35+ hands. And I basically disregarded his minraise since he seemed to be a fairly spewy player and was probably playing any two suited cards.

Full Tilt No-Limit Hold'em, $0.05 BB (6 handed) - Full-Tilt Converter Tool from FlopTurnRiver.com

SB ($4.24)
BB ($5)
UTG ($7.96)
Hero (MP) ($5)
CO ($1.92)
Button ($6.25)

Preflop: Hero is MP with Q, Q
UTG bets $0.10, Hero raises to $0.40, 2 folds, SB calls $0.38, 1 fold, UTG calls $0.30

Flop: ($1.25) 4, K, 10 (3 players)
SB bets $1.40, 1 fold, Hero raises to $2.80, SB calls $1.40

The 1.40 looked extremely weird to me at the time. It seemed very bluffy and if he was holding a hand like Kx I figured that maybe I could push him off a weak king since I was the preflop aggressor. I think it probably would have worked because he tanked for his entire timebank before calling but I tanked for too long before raising.

Turn: ($6.85) 4 (2 players)
SB bets $1.04 (All-In), Hero calls $1.04

I was pot committed here unfortunately so *shrug* Obviously not pleased with how the hand went down

River: ($8.93) 6 (2 players, 1 all-in)

Total pot: $8.93 | Rake: $0.59

I put the hand into pokerstove afterwards and if I don't include any bluffs in his range then it's an obvious fold but if I do include even 3 bluffy hands it becomes a flip. If I include a large portion of his range as bluffs then I'm ahead even if every suited K and low sets are in his range.