wouldn't the $$ I needed to make be $0.08 after I called on the flop? I needed 4:1 to call and I was given 3:1 so I am missing 1 payment of $0.08? Idk thats why I'm asking . so on the flop are we supposed to be thinking ahead to the river? if villain holds 2 pair or weak flush OTF for example, we are about to call the $0.08, making the pot $0.32, any card that's not a 7,6,2 is not the worst. Should we be assuming one of the villains behind us will make the $0.08 call so that we can calculate the size of the pot and future bet we will be facing on the turn if villain decides to barrel again? Kind of difficult to know if anyone behind us will call so maybe not, if we miss our flush on the turn and no paired board comes yet villain bets out again. Pot before Villains turn bet=($0.32) . Villains 2/3 PSB= $0.21 , total pot=($0.53)
then we will be getting odds of 2:1 and should fold the turn , should we be thinking ahead like this?
If our club does come on the turn then we will be more than happy to face that bet however we don't know if villain will bet that same amount versus another club...this gives us reverse implied odds ? since our hand is obvious? but if we just call his bet on the turn....will it still be obvious? if we just call his bet on the turn he has outs to make a full-house on the river that we would need to watch for since 2-pairs are apart of his range here, if he has a weaker flush he could get bet-shy on another club giving us poor pay-off, so in this hand folding the turn was likely best? we don't know if villain is betting this way with the weaker parts of his range but should we stay safe and assume its the stronger end of his range that contains full houses and Axcc nut draws?
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