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Thanks for the responses guys, allow me to elaborate a bit:
My first instinct was to call, but then I realised that I only really beat a bluff, and in order for villain to bluff on such a dry board, villain would have to do one of the following:
a) Turn 44-TT into a bluff. I really can't see a 50NLer doing that. (I also can't see him vbetting thinly).
b) Have c/called me OOP with the intention of bluffing me later. Surely if villain wanted to defend himself against aggression he'd c/r flop more often than float OOP?
I asked myself whether villain was doing a) or b) more than 1/3 of the time, and the answer felt like a no.
Am I missing something/overthinking this? I do have AA in a small raised pot..
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