Quote Originally Posted by Pelion
Not that I know anything about play at this level but if hes so aggro isnt it better to wait until you hit an out and then let him play at you when hes drawing dead? (I mean before you bet out. Obviously this doesnt apply after its raised and reraised.)
The problem with this is that on the flop I have a huge equity versus his range given that I get to see both cards. Though I would probably get adequate odds for the flop call (alot of the time UTG will cbet and MP will just call), if I don't improve on the turn card I am in a pretty awkward spot having lost alot of my equity in the hand. Though he's aggro he's probably not going to put his whole stack in if the flush completes on either street, as there will just be too much money behind. It's just going to be really hard to get the full value of my hand especially since I'm out of position. And this is not to mention the times I don't improve and end up folding the best hand.

To clarify; my read on MP says that even with this huge raise I am ahead of his range. I probably have a tiny amount of FE against him as well. I gladely get this in on the flop HU against him for 200BBs. What makes this hand difficult is the presence of an UTG raiser. His raising range on the flop is probably something like QQ+, sets, combo draws, very occasionally air. I'm pretty sure that his calling range to this action is sets and OESFD only, and he might even find a fold with 44 once every blue moon.

The real question is wether or not he shows up with a set often enough that the dead money when he folds AA/KK plus my equity against MP isn't enough to offset it. Given the fact that there's an aggro player left to act, would UTG be more or less likely to flat call with a set here? I could see arguments for both sides, on the one hand a flat call seems more likely to induce a big move from MP, on the other hand it allows MP (and myself) to draw to a flush with correct odds.

Also a slight hijack. You say he lost 200BBs with a KK overpair. I assume you are implying that was a mistake but wouldnt it usually be a mistake to fold something so close to the top of his range when you play back at him, assuming he knows his own image? I would have thought if hes getting it in with A high/bottom pair alot then he should pretty much never fold an overpair.
This is probably true. I included this because in addition to the fact that he plays huge pots with one pair, he's seen me show up with a big hand in the only 400BBs pot we've played (I think).