OK that's interesting nuts. I can see betting the turn in both hands and actually I think that's a better line then just checking down but I see no reason to bet the flop unless in hand 1 we are bet/calling and in hand 2 we are barrelling the turn a huge % of the time. Are they reasonable assumptions.

Also I don't really get why you consider betting the flop in hand 1 but not in 3?