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 Originally Posted by BananaStand
It's less crazy when you consider that an apt analogy to education would also specify that the government is responsible for funding the operations of the farms and factories that produce the food.
I don't understand the point. Are you saying that governments are responsible for education but not responsible for feeding? If so, that's by law. Are you saying that should be the case by philosophy? If so, why the distinction? Why is the private sector good at feeding itself but not good at educating itself?
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