Changing of position should be based on evidence. The point is that it wasn't in this circumstance. The zero sum argument is a strange one because nothing in the post or anything I've said suggests it's considered to be the case. Quantitatively, even in the amount of growth, it does not make sense that inequality is a product of exploitation.

I'm not sure what point you're trying to make. We don't have any actual evidence that income inequality causes poverty