If it's not a zero sum economy, then the gains of the rich dwarfing the losses of the poor on its own does nothing to prove your point. If the rich are making gains without anyone suffering equitable losses (which I am unsure is what the brief essay is even saying, since "poor" is not defined and could be being used as an antonym for rich or in exclusion of the rich and the middle class) then this is proof that we don't have a zero sum economy and not much else. It certainly does not prove that the gains of the rich aren't made through exploitation.
Also, people are allowed to shift positions. I can quote mine past Renton and wufwugy posts all I want, and I guarantee I can find plenty which contradict both of your current socio-economic stances, but it would in no way disprove your current positions.
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