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 Originally Posted by wufwugy
Do there need to be two+ input variables for heteroskedasticity to arise? For example, if the regression is income = age, the variation in income over the range of age doesn't result in heteroskedasticity, yet if the regression is income = age + gender, then the variation in income over the range of age does result in heteroskedasticity?
It's a bit complicated to explain (and a bit early in the morning) and not relevant to the binomial test I did because that's a non-parametric test that doesn't make any assumptions regarding how the variance is distributed. I will try to get back to this later.
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