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 Originally Posted by swiggidy
I think they covered it. To match your description, don't roll 10mill times in a row, loop for 10mill 3x throw experiments.
That's not going to answer the same question. DUCY?
EDIT: It might be a better experiment for the monopoly scenario, though.
Originally Posted by !Luck
Plus, once I realized that i should ignore the first roll my 38k matches expected probability. Thank you guys for your help. I'm still learning!
I was under the impression that ignoring the first roll had to do with the first roll serving a different function in backgammon.
If the RNG is truly generating random numbers, then all outputs should be equivalent. Why would the "first" roll need to be discarded? (I'm actually curious)
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