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First, do we always have to have a c/c range? Say for example we play against a nit who never shoves anything but the nuts when checked to, why should we have a c/c range? I mean maybe we have to have a c/c range if we want to play a balanced strategy, but it does not seem to me we necessarily have to have a c/c range in an exploitative strategy.
Second, even if we do have a c/c range, why should it be impossible that TPGK falls in our c/f range here, with maybe overpairs, two pairs and bottom set in the c/c range and top sets, straights and flushes in the value bet range? I mean when we get to the river, there is not much worse than top pair/2nd kicker in our range other than bluffs.
Yeah, I would tend to agree with this, I would expect a 37/34 maniac to be aggro enough to bluff a significant amount of the time (edit: although I would also expect him to semi-bluff a lot of his strongest draws OTF). I only stuck to OP's reads above. Some more post flop reads would be useful, sometimes preflop aggro donks shut down post flop. We are supposed to be facing an aggro-maniac and he did nothing but calling in this hand... makes me think that AhA may also be in his range if he is the kind who likes to slow play aces preflop.
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