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 Originally Posted by mrhappy333
 Originally Posted by Example
ok, for example here we have a gutshot.
4 jacks * 4 = 16% to hit by the river.
theres approx .95 cent in the pot
its .35/.95= aprox .38
so were getting almost 3 to 1 to call correct?
so now what?
edited it cuz its $.95 not $95.
So 16% < 38% so we are getting insufficient odds to call! What this means is this: should we call this bet many times over a large sample, we expect to lose money. IE, the times we do hit does not win us enough money to counter all the times we missed and lost the bet we called.
Mind you, in this scenario we are out of position and are unlikely to see a free river. Therefore, we are probably going to have to call a bet on the turn as well. Because of this, we should use the rule of 2 instead, meaning we have only 8% to hit the turn. Also, we are assuming we're beat and that there is no implied value.
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