We don't do that stuff nearly enough, and I'm sure most of you don't really use this, so here's a simple exercise.

I just played this hand an hour ago, and I thought it was somewhat interesting. Villain is a friend of mine

It's 10c/20c/40c live - straddle isn't mandatory but most hands are straddled and double-straddled
Relative stack with villain is €40

I straddle with :Qc:
3 callers, villain completes from the SB, BB completes.

Flop:
6 players
Pot: 1,9 (lol rake)

:Ks: :Qh:

check, check, I bet 2, 3 folds, villain calls, bb folds.

Turn:
2 players
Pot: 5.9


Villain checks, I bet 4.5, villain raises 13, I call.

River:
Pot: 31.9


Villain bets 25 all-in

He can't have AK, KQ, KK, QQ - he would raise pre. He doesn't really think about my range, so even though he would turn 86 into a bluff by playing it that way, he's not aware of it. He would c/r or lead JT almost always. If he would c/r a K or Q with a FD on the turn he probably would c/r bigger and not bet the river - you could add ~4 of those combos if you want to be anal about it.
He doesn't have a bluffing range really. He's smart enough to know not to try and bet me off my hand after I lead a multi-way flop on that table.

So his range is 88, 66, K8, K6, Q8, Q6, 68.
First off just decide if you would call or fold without counting combos.

How much equity do we have against his range, and how much equity do we need to make a call 0EV?
Bonus: What's the exact EV of calling?