Quote Originally Posted by SiCK_Boy
Why is hand 1 judged to be fine?

Isn't he giving his opponent good odds for drawing his flush by betting only 0,80 $? It makes for a 0,80:1,95 (approx. 1:2,5) ratio for the Villain to call, while his chances of getting the flush in two cards are more like 1:2?

Shouldn't he bet a little bit over the pot instead? (like 1,45 $)

Or do you just consider the odds of the villain getting the flush from the turn?

I've been in exactly this situation this afternoon in a live game (Pocket Aces against a flush draw... finally won on the river when it showed a 4th club card while I held the Ace of Club against a King High Flush of Club... still, I've been thinking all day long about my moves and the sizes of the bet I used in that situation)
you're confusing the turn pot with the flop pot, .80 into 1.15 on the flop is much more standard and denies the express odds for the flush draw.

I'm not sure about the turn bet though, it's a little under half the pot(1.30 into 2.75). Though with extremely straight forward villains(aka 10NL) I guess it could save some money here...