Quote Originally Posted by SiCK_Boy
Why is hand 1 judged to be fine?

Isn't he giving his opponent good odds for drawing his flush by betting only 0,80 $? It makes for a 0,80:1,95 (approx. 1:2,5) ratio for the Villain to call, while his chances of getting the flush in two cards are more like 1:2?

Shouldn't he bet a little bit over the pot instead? (like 1,45 $)

Or do you just consider the odds of the villain getting the flush from the turn?

I've been in exactly this situation this afternoon in a live game (Pocket Aces against a flush draw... finally won on the river when it showed a 4th club card while I held the Ace of Club against a King High Flush of Club... still, I've been thinking all day long about my moves and the sizes of the bet I used in that situation)
We're not planning on letting him see the second card for free. That means we'll bet pot on the turn if the flush card doesn't come.