I didn't 3 bet because I'm pretty dominated by his 3 bet calling range and wont get called by too many worse hands. I have position and my hand flops well.

I'm interested to know why we'd 3-bet here. Is it for value, or a sort of semi-bluff to try and win the pot there and then, but with a hand that flops well if he calls?

I tend to polariize my 3 betting range to hands that are clearly way ahead of villains opening range and the odd bluff with say (78s etc) if someone opens lightly and steals a lot, KJs is kind of in between and it's dubious in my head what I'm 3 betting for and what my post-flop plan is. Hope that makes sense.