Really wondering about this hand.

Originally Posted by RML604

Is the range you listed there his pre-flop range? Once you get to the river, his range is much much more narrow than that. He's almost certainly not open shoving 32, 22 on the river. Of those hands you listed, what hands does he get to the river with and then open shove that river? Does he get to the river with a set, or with 2 pair? If he does, would he open shove them when the board got even scarier than it was on the turn?

Assign him a pre-flop range, and then eliminated hands that he's unlikely to have based on the action street by street. And remember to eliminate not only hands that he may fold on a particular street, but eliminate hands that he raises on each street as well. Ranges narrow not only from the bottom up (eliminating weak hands), but from the top down as well (i.e. he's never check/calling 88 on the flop and the turn, so it's not in his river range)

I think this is a fold, but I don't play 2NL so maybe this guy is just a complete maniac or something or just doesn't understand relative hand strength, so it may be a call.

there are some hands that i eliminated but villain was a maniac and his range on river is very specific to him, that was what i was asking actually. with a villain such as this where his range is full of bottom pair/busted draws, middle pair, ace high, etc, etc, etc our equity is ldo going to be good enough to call here, but i feel like being unable to eliminate those rag hands makes this a questionable hand to being playing at all after the turn.

to extrapolate that a little further, i played around with the equity and eliminating some of his weaker hands puts us behind, but if i remember correctly this villain showed down j high, 72o w/bottom pair, and shit like that so that was why i said i couldnt eliminate hands like that from his range.

Originally Posted by kmind

Wow - his post used to be a lot longer...what happened?

it was super long, i edited it to be shorter so that people would respond to it.