Really wondering about this hand.

i wanted to get some feedback on this hand as the question posed at the end is one that if answered will improve my game alot.


$0.01/$0.02 No Limit Holdem
PokerStars
6 Players
Hand Conversion Powered by weaktight.com

Stacks:
UTG Petitdanone3 ($1.73)
UTG+1 BeanyM ($2)
CO reikorp ($5.53) 69/11 over 55 hands
notes:calls w/gutterball/insta bluffs busted draws on river +1 tell bluff draws on river
BTN Hero ($3.88)
SB rouletdeler ($1.58) 77/32 over 22 hands
notes:
1.overbets river with nut hands
2.calling 96o to btn raise...flopped mp checked, called psb q turn, checked river w/intention of calling
3.limped kk oop, minraised 9xx flop, slowplayed rest of streets
BB KastiPoker ($2.89) 23/20 over 35 hands, hasnt been involved much seems fit or fold post.

Pre-Flop: ($0.03, 6 players) Hero is BTN
2 folds, reikorp raises to $0.06, Hero calls $0.06, rouletdeler calls $0.05, KastiPoker calls $0.04




Flop: ($0.24, 4 players)
rouletdeler checks, KastiPoker bets $0.10, reikorp calls $0.10, Hero calls $0.10, rouletdeler calls $0.10



Turn: ($0.64, 4 players)
rouletdeler checks, KastiPoker checks, reikorp checks, Hero bets $0.46, rouletdeler calls $0.46, KastiPoker folds, reikorp folds



River: ($1.56, 2 players)
rouletdeler goes all-in $0.96, Hero folds

at the time i didnt think i could call here with so many tx, 4x hands in his range i figured i had to be behind

he gives me .96 to win 2.52 or like 2.65 to 1 on the call i have:

Board: 5d 8c 3s 7h 6s

Hand 0: 61.017% { 7d6d }

Hand 1: 38.983% { 44, 22, AQs-A2s, K8s+, K5s, K3s, Q3s+, J3s+, T3s+, 93s+, 82s+, 72s+, 62s+, 52s+, 42s+, 32s, A2o+, K8o-K4o, Q8o-Q6o, J8o-J7o, T6o+, 95o+, 84o+, 74o+, 62o+, 52o+, 42o+, 32o }


being that i only need 38% to call here and i have 61% equity against his range i should have called? this is such a grey area for me because his continuing range is so wide.

That's a long post so no offense tl;dr some of it but I can say I disagree with the preflop range you gave the PFR. His should be tighter.

Is the range you listed there his pre-flop range? Once you get to the river, his range is much much more narrow than that. He's almost certainly not open shoving 32, 22 on the river. Of those hands you listed, what hands does he get to the river with and then open shove that river? Does he get to the river with a set, or with 2 pair? If he does, would he open shove them when the board got even scarier than it was on the turn?

Assign him a pre-flop range, and then eliminated hands that he's unlikely to have based on the action street by street. And remember to eliminate not only hands that he may fold on a particular street, but eliminate hands that he raises on each street as well. Ranges narrow not only from the bottom up (eliminating weak hands), but from the top down as well (i.e. he's never check/calling 88 on the flop and the turn, so it's not in his river range)

I think this is a fold, but I don't play 2NL so maybe this guy is just a complete maniac or something or just doesn't understand relative hand strength, so it may be a call.

Looks fine. I think checking or betting the turn is debatable. shrug

Wow - his post used to be a lot longer...what happened?

Originally Posted by RML604

Is the range you listed there his pre-flop range? Once you get to the river, his range is much much more narrow than that. He's almost certainly not open shoving 32, 22 on the river. Of those hands you listed, what hands does he get to the river with and then open shove that river? Does he get to the river with a set, or with 2 pair? If he does, would he open shove them when the board got even scarier than it was on the turn?

Assign him a pre-flop range, and then eliminated hands that he's unlikely to have based on the action street by street. And remember to eliminate not only hands that he may fold on a particular street, but eliminate hands that he raises on each street as well. Ranges narrow not only from the bottom up (eliminating weak hands), but from the top down as well (i.e. he's never check/calling 88 on the flop and the turn, so it's not in his river range)

I think this is a fold, but I don't play 2NL so maybe this guy is just a complete maniac or something or just doesn't understand relative hand strength, so it may be a call.

there are some hands that i eliminated but villain was a maniac and his range on river is very specific to him, that was what i was asking actually. with a villain such as this where his range is full of bottom pair/busted draws, middle pair, ace high, etc, etc, etc our equity is ldo going to be good enough to call here, but i feel like being unable to eliminate those rag hands makes this a questionable hand to being playing at all after the turn.

to extrapolate that a little further, i played around with the equity and eliminating some of his weaker hands puts us behind, but if i remember correctly this villain showed down j high, 72o w/bottom pair, and shit like that so that was why i said i couldnt eliminate hands like that from his range.

Originally Posted by kmind

Wow - his post used to be a lot longer...what happened?

it was super long, i edited it to be shorter so that people would respond to it.