pott odds question

Hello there ive been having a little trouble with some of the maths behind poker and behind the stats of poker office.

Ok so i have a table that says the chances of hitting a flush draw are:
1.9 to 1 (2 cards to come) and
4.1 to 1 (1 card to come).

So lets say im holding a nut flush draw and sum1 bets the pot giving me 2ish to 1? do i call that with two cards to come or fold based ont he fact that the turn bet will be a pot sized bet also meaning that im not getting the 4:1 i need to call 1 card.

Im just confused about how to "draw" to my hands. Should i be going for 4:1 odds with a flush draw on both streets. Or should i get 2:1 on the flop and 4:1 on the turn?

:@:@

Im hopeless at maths tbh.

You should use the 1 card to come thing whenever theres a decent to good chance of villain betting the turn, and the 2 cards to come one whenever we feel that we'll get to see a free river.

Basically...say the pot is 10 and we have our 9 out flush draw. If villain goes all in for 9, then we can use the 2 cards to come one reliably. But if villain bets 10, we call, then villain bets 25 into 30 on the turn, then strictly speaking we fucked ourselves by using the 2cards to come thing there.

Of course theres more to it than that such as implied odds and board textures and other factors...but for when to use the rule thats the gist.

About Pot Odds and Implied Odds When Playing Draws - Poker Forums

lol forgot about that thread. nh

Reading the stickies helps