pot odds and implied odds - simple question or two

Ok, back at it. Using spoons example, we know that the odds against us hitting are 4.9:1. In our situation our pot odds are 3:1. If every time we miss we lose $1, and we miss 4.9 times for every time we win, so we lose $4.90 for every $3.00 we win. We need an extra $1.90 when we hit to break even. Anybody?

supa and philly good to see. Now who's right? they can't both be
i think
drinking not thinking
unwinding not grinding
web designing and trance ftw

Originally Posted by supahaole

Ok, back at it. Using spoons example, we know that the odds against us hitting are 4.9:1. In our situation our pot odds are 3:1. If every time we miss we lose $1, and we miss 4.9 times for every time we win, so we lose $4.90 for every $3.00 we win. We need an extra $1.90 when we hit to break even. Anybody?

The above is correct.

Your pot odds are 3:1 (not 4:1).
However, 3:1 pot odds = 25% pot odds.

You have 8 outs and there are 47 cards left.
Your odds of hitting your draw are (47-8)/8 = 4.85:1. (~4.9:1). This is the same as ~17% chance .

Since your chance of hitting is less than your pot odds percentage it is not a good call.

Your implied odds would require another $1.90 to make up the missing cash, or put another way, if you think that on the Turn Villain will call or bet $2 then your pot odds on the Flop become:
(3 + 2):1 = 5:1 = 16.6%. Since this is about the same as your ~17% chance to make your straight it is now worth while calling.
If Villain goes all-in on the flop with his miserable $1 to make the pot $3 then it is not worth calling because you won't be able to get the additional $1.90 you need out of him.