Okay... so I read that the odds of flopping a set if you have pocket pairs is 1 in 8. (Maybe not the exact number, but that's not entirely relevant to the question...)

So I use Sklansky's starting hands chart from SSHE exclusively. I also have a cold call percentage of somewhere around never... (<.1%) Based on this, I'll limp in with 88 or less wherever possible and appropriate for position.

However, about 60% of the time I have 88 or less, I'm facing a PF raiser -- and since I won't cold call these and they're not strong enough to raise with, I fold.

So how is the 1 in 8 math affected by this reality? Murphy's law, it always seems to be the pockets I fold to a PFR that hit the set on the flop. So is it really 1 in 8, or more like 1 in 11+ because I have to factor in the ones that I fold before the flop?

This seems like a valid question to me as it changes the expected value of limping in with pockets over the long term.

Question two.... About 40% of the times that I limp in with 88 or less, I get raised. I don't really want to play these for 2 SB, but am already in so call the raise. Is this a leak as I am only playing these for the odds of hitting the set?