|
 Originally Posted by Warpe
 Originally Posted by HalvSame
I think I disagree with the "it depends" statement. I know my total flop % over time is around 30, but it depends on the table I' m playing. If a table is limp-happy I' m seeing a lot more flops than if the table is raising alot preflop.

The "it depends" statement I'm referring to is this one from Aok that was quoted in the post before mine:
What percentage of flops do you see (within 3%)? Don't guess, if you don't KNOW then you're a bad poker player. " It depends" is wrong.
I should have said "I disagree with the "It depends" is wrong statement", as I think that it DOES depend. Aww crap, I'm getting dizzy trying to rephrase here. My meaning comes through now, right?
30% is mighty loose, btw. (for another thread)
Lol yeah, I just pulled that number straight out of my big ass. This emphasizes my point that I do not think about my flops seen percentage very much. I do have a plan for each hand I see the flop with, though, and THAT is what I think matters.
FWIW PT says I'm 16/7 over a huge sample of 3k hands. I'm going to wait until I have a bigger sample size before deciding wether to actively make adjustments to this (and yeah, this is for another thread which I will create when the time is right, so let's get back to the topic at hand ).
Edit: and when I spend fifteen minutes trying to arrange my quotes, Aok steps in and explains.
|