|
Math question, extra credit (semi-lo content)
So if you play poker long enough you will see every possible scenario, though this one is limited to onine play:
On two tables, at the same time, I am dealt:
They were blue, however. This is incidental.
This is a hand I rank high in terms of the suited 1-gappers (close behind J9s, the uber nuts) and wouldnt mind seeing a cheap multiway flop with, preferably with position. I manage this on both tables (button, CO) and the flop comes down on the first table:
and on the second table:
Weird. I win a small pot on one and a mid-large pot on the other. This is also incidental.
The question is, obviously, what are the odds of this happening, being dealt the exact same hand on two tables at the same time and having the flop come down nearly identical, numbered identically with only one pair being unsuited?
Also, how much more improbable is the the flop being identical, or in the same order (Q, 10, 2)?
Or both hand being dealt in the same position?
Or all of the above?
This isnt an official contest; I won't be sending anybody $5 in their poker stars account (I don't have one), though if I can't figure it when I tackle it tomorrow, maybe i'll think of something; besides, of course, the knowledge being our reward.
|