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 Originally Posted by gotigers1234
Ok seems I made a horrible decision again lol. But for shits and giggles lets say on this flop he checked and then minraised my bet. Would me shoving be + EV? I guess flatting that minraise would be a bad bad play? How do you guys narrow a range when someone check raises or is that possible? B/c when check raises to me it seems to widen their range? I hope my gibberish is understandable.
If the flop pot was $0.38 and you bet $0.28 into it, then he minraises back. you'd have a $0.92 pot with you having $3.51 behind.
Shoving here means you're risking $3.51 to win $0.92
Think about that for a minute. If we had some sort of bet on like a dog race, and I offered you odds such that if you bet $3.51 on a dog and you won I'd pay you $0.92 (plus your original wager back of course), how sure would you have to be that dog would win? Very fucking sure.
So, assuming he's ahead, and that you have to improve and hit your flush to beat him, and if you do hit your flush you'll definitely win, then you will lose $3.51 65% of the time when you don't hit the flush, and win $4.43 (the original pot and his call) 35% of the time when you do hit, meaning an EV of (0.35*4.43)-(0.65*3.51) = 1.55-2.28 = -$0.73 so each time you make this play you lose $0.73
If you think he'll fold to a push some proportion of the time, then you have fold equity of the pot times the probability of him folding.
How often does he have to fold to break even here?
Let Pcall = probability he calls, Pfold = probability he folds
Well if you lose 0.73 on average each time he calls then you lose 0.73*Pcall, and you want that to equal 0.92*Pfold (the 92c you win times the probability he folds so you do win it)
Pfold+Pcall=1, so Pfold=(1-Pcall)
So 0.73*Pcall=0.92*(1-Pcall)
=> 0.73*Pcall=0.92-0.92*Pcall
Divide through by Pcall
0.73=(0.92/Pcall) - 0.92
So 1.65=0.92/Pcall -> Pcall=0.92/1.65 = 0.55
So he must call no more than 55% of the time. After raising.
Don't overcommit in small pots.
Considering the option to call his hypothetical minraise of $0.28 into a $0.92 pot, you'd have pot odds of 94 to 28, which is 3.4:1, assuming you thought you could see both turn and river for that bet without paying any more on the turn, you could call that with good odds, since you need odds of 2:1 and you're getting 3.4:1
You won't see the river without paying though, and the odds you hit your card on the turn to make your flush are 4:1 or so, so you're not getting enough odds to call.
Read: Poker Pot Odds | Using Pot Odds In Poker
Google "odds and outs" and learn how you can decide whether a call is a profitable one or not.
Explain why you think that them C/Ring the flop widens their range? Perhaps we can get to the bottom of what you've misunderstood here.
And if I catch you chasing a draw all in without odds to do so again, I will bumhunt you!
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