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 Originally Posted by JinxT4
Originally Posted by iopq
I' m hoping to flop 234 obv
Seems kinda strange to me that you'd want to play a hand where the best flop you hope for only gives you the 2nd nuts.
Originally Posted by iopq
but I said he didn't seem to be fishy which is why I would make this bet because he has a difficult time calling me
Oh, I misread & thought you said he seemed fishy. Either way, the fact that he limped when folded to would make me assume that he's probably fishy & won't have a difficult time calling you.
Originally Posted by iopq
I am applying ISF theorem because I' m betting when his range is weak, and I' m taking the "slow played set" line
Wouldn't you probably raise the turn with a "slow-played set"? Would you really wait until to the river to try to get all the money in? Your range isn't ahead of your opponents after calling 2 streets imo.
No, the best flop is AA5 obv. But I agree with the comments on the previous streets (raise pf, fold before the river, etc.)
I still wonder if my river bet is correct here
of course my line doesn't have to make sense if my opponent doesn't look at whether my line makes sense, only whether he feels he's beat with just one pair
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